From reading other threads on here I wanted to throw out a situation and get feedback to see if I am on the right track with rule interpretations.
We have a Roman HF BG in close combat with a Carthaginian HF BG. A Roman cavalry BG can charge in the impact phase the rear left Carthaginian base, but its not a legal flank charge.
Here is the initial situation:

Now after the impact it’s the Roman maneuver phase. The cavalry have to align itself to the front as it is not in a flank melee. But since there is a BG to the front already there can be no conform to the front. Now because there is no conform to the front does the cavalry BG still conform to the flank

or remain in its initial contact position?

In this next part the situation is changed in that the Roman HF is moved 1 base to its left. The charge goes in as above:

Now the cavalry BG can align to the front and takes up an overlap position.

There was talk about the cavalry forcing the HF to move out of the way to allow it to conform. I would not play it that way as it seems too much to ask a BG in combat to shift over to new opponents. I don’t think its in the spirit of the rules. I think it makes more sense to me to allow the cavalry to conform to the flank but fight to the front.
Can some more knowledgeable players comment as to if I am right and if not where I went wrong.
Submitted humbly
Brian







