I am rather a fan of he Nikephorian byzantine army and here I present my arguments :
Varangian guard :I do not understand why you wait 1042 to create the varangian guard as an drilled , armoured or heavily armoured unit . I know , 6.000 varanians were given in 988 to Basile II by Wladimir of Kiev. They serve as bodyguard and their strenght is still recorded as 6.000 in 999 . I can understand why they are at the beginning considered as undrileld , average, protected offensive spearmen . But years after in 1034, they are defined as : Palation Varangoi ( Varangian guard ) and also in the Re Militari of Nikephoros Ouranos ( C 990-1000).
Serving as the emperor’s bodyguard,
it would be logical for them to be armored . Generally speaking, a ruler has a tendency to give a better equipment to his guard unit . The empire was rich and had access to good armor . so why wiould the imperial varangian guard unit NOT have access to such equipment . We must also take into account the fact that the varangians used as bodyguard would have to replace lost or damaged equipment, be it swords, shields or armor . It wold not take so long before they would be more byzantine like than russ like .
Sagas around 1030 mention norsemen returning home with part of byzantine equipment / uniform which point to an organised unit .
They are dismissed in 1040 as a guard unit and come back in 1042 . ( sources Army of the dark ages 600-1066 , Ian Heath and Osprey 89 same author )
My question is , why are they not given status as Guard before 1042 ? the equipment is the same, they come back as guard after a palace revolution ...so I must admit I do not understand . I my own opinion, they could easely have achieved an drilled superior/elite status much earlier , let’s say 1000 AD .
They would have received a kind of uniform rather early . Byzantines were fond of uniforms and guards in red uniform , bearing axes are mentionned in 900 by a certain Haroun Ibn Yahya , so we might deduce it is the same uniform that was given to the varangians .
Let us consider antother elite unit, another historical period : 1789, french revolution , 1800, creation of the consular guard which will become in 1804 the imperial guard . In 15 years , an elite unit is created . 11 years latter it meets his fate at Waterloo . The origins of that guard unit lays in the conscript of 1789 ... a raw , untrained civilian .
So why could varangian warriors, nieuwly equiped with byzantine armour, not become a trained elite unit in say 10-20 years, why wait 1042 .... I am aware that since the publication of the osprey books, historians have found new elements, but I think not so much as to eliminate the varangian guard as an elite unit before 1042 . I would settle for 1000 , not 1042.
As Steven Lowe wrote
Varangian Equipment
As the Emperor’s bodyguard, the Varangian Guards would be expected to have helmet, armour, shield and a good weapon as a bare minimum, and those without them would have been supplied from the Imperial Armoury. And those who had their own gear would have gradually replaced it as equipment broke or wore out.
http://www.angelfire.com/empire/egfroth ... Armour.htm
and by the same autor
Varangian Armour
It would be reasonable to assume that as Imperial bodyguards, the Varangians would be expected to wear armour in battle. If only for self-protection, the Emperor would want to ensure that those charged with keeping him alive were not killed themselves. However, it is unlikely that many new recruits had their own armour; in northern and western Europe, the recruitment pools from which these guardsmen came, it was scarce and expensive. It is my contention that the majority of new Varangian Guardsmen, arriving without armour, or even helmets, would have been supplied with Byzantine armour from the Imperial arsenal.
Another point of view I defended was : why not at least permit one unit of infantry to access to an armoured status ( 4 front bases ) to represent the tagmata and the real possibility that the tagmata had heavier first line infantry, the famous SHI of ancient WRG rules . I know FOG says that the armoured status of a unit is the average of the armour , but heavily armoured first ranks ( as says Leo ) and padded armor at the rear ranks might be considered as "armoured" . It seems to me that sometimes you are very open to interpretation, sometimes, much less

Ok I might be in favor of a strongh byzantine army so what ...
Writing , as it was done in this post that allowing byzantine skutatoï to be armoured would be making them too strong makes me wonder : what about the armoured Ghaznavid spearmen ? . Aren’t they strong because they only have LF as rear support and not MF . The byzantine empire had the means to equip it’s army . So why would they have not done so . Anglo Saxons can have a lot of armoured sprearmen ( Wolves from the sea ) . Norman knights will have a real hard time against them but that does not seem to be be a problem contrary to armoured skutatoïs .
Finally the flankers : following byzantines strategy books, they would use up to two units of 500 cavalrymen , from whom about 80-100 would be bowmen, the others lancers . Lighly equipped and whose function would be to harass, ursue and trick the enemy to an early charge , which seems to indicate in terms of Fog an LH , lancer unit .
OK , it is only my point of view and I will continue reading some books on the subject ( currently Warfare state and society in the Byzantine World b John Haldon )
Regards
Jacques Wilputte