This is obvious. I only wanted to respond to joerock´s points. The allies could be stopped at Siegfried line in 1944 but why this have to be considered an axis victory? What´s the merit for the axis player that have failed in stopping the allies at the beach and only have to hold in the fortresses hoping for bad weather to delay the allies advance? Wouldn´t it more just to consider this situation as a draw?Stauffenberg wrote: Do you really think the western Allies can get to Hamburg and Berlint WITHOUT first landing in France? So if they force an Axis surrender in e. g. February 1945 that means they've managed to successfully land in France in 1944 and before. If the Allies manage to land in France in 1944, but are stopped at the Siegfrield line then the Germans can still win if they hold till May 1945. What's wrong with that?
Recently, posted in the AAR´s section was a game played by you against Ronnie in which I can see what I consider an axis victory: viewtopic.php?p=126417&sid=3971ff6b9b5a ... e50#126417
But a game in which the germans are reduced to their mainland territory with poor quality troops and it is only a question of time they will be invaded by both the western allies and russians shouldn´t be considered an axis victory. At least, this should be considered as a draw. This way, the landing allied success in France would be compensated by the german success in delaying the allies in late 1944 and 1945.
I really don´t understand this: if you perform exactly like the real germans you would have to lose!!Stauffenberg wrote: If you perform exactly like the real Germans then it's a draw.





