Ratio of pike to shot
Posted: Thu Jun 01, 2017 12:58 am
I have some questions, both historical and game play related, about the gradual decrease in the portion of pikemen in infantry units.
From a gameplay perspective, I'm wondering why the ratio of pikemen has no effect on the melee effectiveness of a unit. As things stand, a unit with 50% pike is just as good at fighting infantry or repelling cavalry as a unit with 20% pike. The game is well designed and everything was clearly thought out, but I'm having a few difficulties figuring out what abstraction is occurring, and whether or not this is a fair representation. I know that during the 30 Years War, army commanders tried (often in vain) to maintain the 1-2 ratio of pikes to muskets in their infantry units. Why was this, if not because they were more effective in battle? But this doesn't answer the question of whether that higher ratio of pikes was desirable for protection against cavalry or to combat infantry.
So I see a number of historical possibilities that the game is attempting to abstract:
1) Less pikemen are needed to fend off cavalry. This could be because the socket bayonet is widely adopted. Or, it could be due to incremental improvements in firearm technology leading to a higher rate of fire. As a result, cavalry were less willing to trot into contact as before but instead relied on speed once within range. This led to their discarding armor in favor of mobility, which left them more vulnerable in melee.
2) Pikemen are not useful during a firefight. Charges would occur when one side felt like it had a sufficient advantage to close. Whatever fear advancing pikemen may have caused was offset by their tactical inflexibility. While musketeers could stand and fire or charge, pikemen could charge or... stand. The latter choice would be psychologically untenable.
3) Related to the above, at some point, European infantry seemed to lose the willingness to engage in prolonged hand to hand combat in the open field; perhaps this was related to the discarding of armor. In any case, as infantry charges became more often decided by moral resolution and initial contact than prolonged hand to hand combat, the pike lost its usefulness. A greater proportion of musketeers would provide that moral advantage before contact.
Still, these theories don't cleanly answer a couple of questions in game terms.
1) Why does a unit of 20% pikes repel cavalry as readily as a unit with 50% pikes? Why does a unit with less pikes do just as well in melee against infantry?
2) Why doesn't a unit that includes pikemen get any kind of POA bonus against infantry? As things stand, the pikemen may as well be armed with pitchforks or clubs, receiving no POA bonus vs foot. Granted, they cancel out swordsmen and heavy weapon POA when steady, but it's still odd that they are fighting musketeers on even terms in melee.
Of course, I could be wrong on some of the above details, and I'm clearly not an expert on the history here. Anybody have some insight to clarify this with?
From a gameplay perspective, I'm wondering why the ratio of pikemen has no effect on the melee effectiveness of a unit. As things stand, a unit with 50% pike is just as good at fighting infantry or repelling cavalry as a unit with 20% pike. The game is well designed and everything was clearly thought out, but I'm having a few difficulties figuring out what abstraction is occurring, and whether or not this is a fair representation. I know that during the 30 Years War, army commanders tried (often in vain) to maintain the 1-2 ratio of pikes to muskets in their infantry units. Why was this, if not because they were more effective in battle? But this doesn't answer the question of whether that higher ratio of pikes was desirable for protection against cavalry or to combat infantry.
So I see a number of historical possibilities that the game is attempting to abstract:
1) Less pikemen are needed to fend off cavalry. This could be because the socket bayonet is widely adopted. Or, it could be due to incremental improvements in firearm technology leading to a higher rate of fire. As a result, cavalry were less willing to trot into contact as before but instead relied on speed once within range. This led to their discarding armor in favor of mobility, which left them more vulnerable in melee.
2) Pikemen are not useful during a firefight. Charges would occur when one side felt like it had a sufficient advantage to close. Whatever fear advancing pikemen may have caused was offset by their tactical inflexibility. While musketeers could stand and fire or charge, pikemen could charge or... stand. The latter choice would be psychologically untenable.
3) Related to the above, at some point, European infantry seemed to lose the willingness to engage in prolonged hand to hand combat in the open field; perhaps this was related to the discarding of armor. In any case, as infantry charges became more often decided by moral resolution and initial contact than prolonged hand to hand combat, the pike lost its usefulness. A greater proportion of musketeers would provide that moral advantage before contact.
Still, these theories don't cleanly answer a couple of questions in game terms.
1) Why does a unit of 20% pikes repel cavalry as readily as a unit with 50% pikes? Why does a unit with less pikes do just as well in melee against infantry?
2) Why doesn't a unit that includes pikemen get any kind of POA bonus against infantry? As things stand, the pikemen may as well be armed with pitchforks or clubs, receiving no POA bonus vs foot. Granted, they cancel out swordsmen and heavy weapon POA when steady, but it's still odd that they are fighting musketeers on even terms in melee.
Of course, I could be wrong on some of the above details, and I'm clearly not an expert on the history here. Anybody have some insight to clarify this with?